[Aug 27, 2026] Get Free Updates Up to 365 days On Developing D-PE-FN-01 Braindumps [Q11-Q30]

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[Aug 27, 2026] Get Free Updates Up to 365 days On Developing D-PE-FN-01 Braindumps [Q11-Q30]

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[Aug 27, 2026] Get Free Updates Up to 365 days On Developing D-PE-FN-01 Braindumps

Best Quality EMC D-PE-FN-01 Exam Questions

EMC D-PE-FN-01 Exam Syllabus Topics:

Section	Weight	Objectives
Troubleshooting and Maintenance	20%	– Diagnostics 1. ePSA diagnostics 2. Hardware logs and event viewer – Repair and Replacement 1. Component failure identification 2. FRU replacement procedures
Server Infrastructure Management	15%	– Server Deployment 1. Configuration profiles 2. OS installation methods – iDRAC and Lifecycle Controller 1. Lifecycle Controller usage and updates 2. iDRAC features and configuration
Systems Management and Monitoring	25%	– OpenManage Suite 1. OpenManage Mobile 2. OpenManage Enterprise – Remote Management 1. Redfish and API integration 2. Alerting and reporting
Security Features	15%	– Platform Security 1. Authentication and access control 2. Securing the server platform – Data Security 1. Cryptographic erase 2. TPM features
Server Components and Architecture	25%	– Networking and I/O 1. Network interface cards 2. I/O expansion slots – System Hardware 1. Power and thermal management 2. Memory and CPU architecture 3. Storage options and controllers

NEW QUESTION 11
What is commonly by a system administrator to prevent electrostatic discharge when working inside a Dell EMC PowerEdge server?

Non anti-static floor mart

Voltage Regular

Uninterruptible Power Supply

Anti_static wire strap

NEW QUESTION 12
A system administrator is securing the company’s out-of-band management solution on Dell EMC PowerEdge servers. They want to use a security feature that can protect their configuration from any unintentional or accidental changes after the system is provisioned.
Which feature will achieve the security requirements?

System Lookdown Mode

RSA SecureID Authentication

Trusted Platform Module

Boot Guard

NEW QUESTION 13
Which dual-level RAID configuration is combined to configure RAID 10 on a single array?

RAID 0 RAID 1, mirrored and parity

RAID 0 RAID 1, mirrored and striped

RAID 1 RAID 0, parity and striped

RAID 0 RAID 1, striped and mirrored

NEW QUESTION 14
What is a characteristic of server and user authenticator?

User does not need to provide their identity to the server or the client for authentication.

Authentication uses logs to determine tasks each individual performs and which files the user is accessing.

Authentication is commonly implemented through login ID and password in private and public networks.

Server does not need to know exactly who is accessing the information or site for authentication.

NEW QUESTION 15
An administrator sets up an In-Band management method to monitor Dell PowerEdge servers. Which In-Band and one-to-one software application can they use to monitor and manage the health of a server?

OpenManage Enterprise

OMSA

iDRAC

OME-M

NEW QUESTION 16
Which are the examples of artifacts that a TPM securely stores for server authentication?

Passwords, certificates, or encryption keys

Firmware updates. BIOS settings, certificates

Operating system files, application data, user profiles

System logs, event records, performance metrics

NEW QUESTION 17
An IT department is upgrading to solid state drives (SSDs) to improve server performance They are looking for a storage device with no moving parts, which are known for its fault-tolerant architecture.
Which storage component is a nonvolatile storage device using solid-state flash memory and is known for faster performance than traditional hard drives and fault tolerance?

SCSI drive

SAS hard disk drive

SSD drive

SATA hard disk drive

NEW QUESTION 18
Where is a tower server commonly deployed, and why?

Branch or remote location, because a rack is not needed

Datacenter, because tower servers tend to be more powerful so more work can be done in the same physical space

Branch or remote location, because of security concerns

Datacenter, due to more PCI support allowing for more external storage

NEW QUESTION 19
A RAID 5 configuration with 20 hard drives loses one hard drive. How many additional hard drive failures can this configuration tolerate before experiencing data loss?

NEW QUESTION 20
A server administrator is deploying Windows 2016 Hyper-V. The virtual machines within the infrastructure will be communicating with each other. They will also be communicating with other network services and legacy systems that are hosted on a physical server. What is the virtual switch that must be configured to support this deployment?

Private switch

Distributed switch

External switch

Internal switch

NEW QUESTION 21
A server room has two power grids, A and B. PSU1 on each server is on grid A, and PSU2 is on gridB. Grid B has significantly lower load compared to grid A.
What is the most likely cause of the unbalanced power load?

PSU1 is a higher wattage power supply than PSU2

Hot spare feature is enabled in power supply configuration

PSU1 is always the primary power supply

UPS and PDU are not installed to balance the load

NEW QUESTION 22
Which RAID configuration provides the lowest redundancy level?

RAID 5

RAID 6

RAID 50

RAID 60

NEW QUESTION 23
Where can an administrator view alerts in the iDRAC?

Quick Sync > QR Code

Settings > Alerts

Help > QR Code

Maintenance > System event log

NEW QUESTION 24
Compared to a client system CPU, which characteristic is associated with a server CPU?

Higher video output resolution support

Lasts longer at a high sustained load

Generally lower core count but higher frequency

In multi-CPU configuration, uneven number of CPUs required

NEW QUESTION 25
What protocol is used by the In-Band Management tools for basic communication and messaging?

ICMP

SMTP

SNMP

RedFish

NEW QUESTION 26
What is the correct sequence to deploy the operating systems when using the Lifecycle Controller? Note: Answers to this question are not verified by our experts, please study yourself and select the appropriate answers.

a) Select the operating system.
b) Enter the Lifecycle Controller.
c) Insert the operating system installation media.
d) Select OS Deployment and deploy.
e) Configure the RAID disk.

a) Enter the Lifecycle Controller.
b) Select the operating system.
c) Insert the operating system installation media.
d) Select OS Deployment and deploy.
e) Configure the RAID disk.

a) Insert the operating system installation media.
b) Enter the Lifecycle Controller.
c) Select the operating system.
d) Select OS Deployment and deploy.
e) Configure the RAID disk.

a) Select the operating system.
b) Configure the RAID disk.
c) Insert the operating system installation media.
d) Select OS Deployment and deploy.
e) Enter the Lifecycle Controller.

a) Enter the Lifecycle Controller.
b) Insert the operating system installation media.
c) Select OS Deployment and deploy.
d) Select the operating system.
e) Configure the RAID disk.

NEW QUESTION 27
What is an example of a dedicated server?

Virtual Switch server

Clustered server

Database server

Secure Shell server

NEW QUESTION 28
Drag and Drop Question
What is the correct sequence when deploying the operating systems by directly booting from media?

NEW QUESTION 29
A server administrator needs to deploy and later configure a new server from a remote location.
Which tool do they need to achieve this?

SAE

iDRAC

WDS

OMSA

NEW QUESTION 30
A data center is designed with cold aisle containment. How are cold aisles used in this design to manage server temperatures?

Isolate the cold aisle to prevent any airflow from the hot aisle.

Direct hot exhaust air from the servers into the cold aisle.

Pump cold air into the cold aisle for server intake.

Recirculate hot air within the cold aisle to preheat intake air.

In cold aisle containment designs, cold aisles are used to supply chilled air directly to server intakes by pumping cold air from air handlers or CRAC units into the enclosed cold aisle, ensuring efficient cooling and preventing mixing with hot exhaust air. This isolation improves energy efficiency and maintains optimal server temperatures. Directing hot air into the cold aisle or recirculating it would increase temperatures, defeating the purpose. Containment focuses on separating airflows for better thermal management in PowerEdge server deployments. Exact extract: “Explain the cooling and thermal considerations in PowerEdge Servers (Direct Liquid Cooling, Immersion Cooling, Air Cooling)… Describe maintenance functions, shutdowns, reboots of a PowerEdge Server.” Reference: Dell PowerEdge Foundations v2 Exam Description (D-PE-FN-01), Topic: Maintenance (18%).

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[Aug 27, 2026] Get Free Updates Up to 365 days On Developing D-PE-FN-01 Braindumps [Q11-Q30]

EMC D-PE-FN-01 Exam Syllabus Topics:

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