ISTQB-CTFL Archives - Premium VCE Dumps

NEW QUESTION 26
Which of the following is correct with regards to debugging?

Debugging identifies the cause of a failure

Debugging is often performed by test engineers

Debugging is considered part of the testing activities

Debugging is intended to find as many defects as possible in the code

NEW QUESTION 27
Which of the following statements about reviews are TRUE?
I In walkthroughs the review meeting is typically led by the author.
II Inspection is characterized by an open-ended review meeting
III Preparation before the review meeting is part of informal reviews
IV Management rarely participates in technical review meetings

II, Ill

I, II

I, IV

III, IV

NEW QUESTION 28
The following part of a business process flow is specified; REPEAT (book a bill) UNTIL (User presses Cancel). How many test cases are necessary in order to achieve 100% branch coverage of the process flow?

4

1

2

Infinite

NEW QUESTION 29
A program got 100% decision coverage in a test. Which of the following statements is then guaranteed to be true?

Every executable statement Is covered.

Every output equivalence class has been tested.

Every input equivalence class has been tested.

The “dead” code has not been covered.

If a program got 100% decision coverage in a test, then it is guaranteed that every executable statement is covered. Decision coverage (also known as branch coverage) is a type of structural coverage (also known as white-box coverage) that measures how many decision outcomes have been exercised by a test suite. A decision outcome is a possible result of a decision point (such as an if-then-else statement) in a program’s code. Decision coverage requires that each decision point has both true and false outcomes executed at least once by a test suite. Decision coverage implies statement coverage, which is another type of structural coverage that measures how many executable statements have been executed by a test suite. Statement coverage requires that each executable statement is executed at least once by a test suite. Therefore, if a program got 100% decision coverage in a test, then it also got 100% statement coverage in a test, which means that every executable statement is covered. The other options are not guaranteed to be true if a program got 100% decision coverage in a test. Every output equivalence class has been tested and every input equivalence class has been tested are not guaranteed to be true if a program got 100% decision coverage in a test, because equivalence classes are based on functional requirements or specifications, not on code structure or logic. Equivalence classes are used in specification-based testing (also known as black-box testing), which is a type of testing that does not consider the internal structure or implementation of the system under test. Decision coverage is used in structure-based testing (also known as white-box testing), which is a type of testing that considers the internal structure or implementation of the system under test. Therefore, achieving 100% decision coverage does not imply achieving 100% equivalence class coverage. The “dead” code has not been covered is not guaranteed to be true if a program got 100% decision coverage in a test, because dead code (also known as unreachable code) is code that can never be executed due to logical errors or design flaws. Dead code can reduce readability and maintainability of the code, as well as increase complexity and size. Decision coverage does not account for dead code, as it only considers the decision outcomes that are possible to execute. Therefore, achieving 100% decision coverage does not imply that the dead code has not been covered. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus – Springer, page 36.

NEW QUESTION 30
Which of the following statements about decision tables are TRUE?
I Generally, decision tables are generated for low risk test items.
II Test cases derived from decision tables can be used for component tests.
III Several test cases can be selected for each column of the decision table.
IV The conditions in the decision table represent negative tests generally.

I. Ill

I. IV

II. IV

II. Ill

Generally, decision tables are generated for low risk test items. Decision tables are not related to risk level, but rather to complexity level. Decision tables are generated for test items that have complex logic or multiple conditions and actions that need to be tested.

NEW QUESTION 31
Consider the following statements about risk-based testing.
I) Risk-based testing has the objective to reduce the level of protect risks.
II) Tests should be prioritized to find tie critical detects as early as possible.
III) Non-testing activities may also help to reduce risk
IV) Risks have to be reassessed on a regular basis.
V) The project stakeholders can give useful input to determine the risks

I III IV and V are true. II is false.

II, III IV and V are correct. I is false.

I, II and IV are true. III and V are false.

II, Ill and V are true. 1 ants Iv are false.

NEW QUESTION 32
Which of the following tools is most likely to detect defects in functions or methods in source code?

configuration management tool

unit test framework tool

test design tool

monitoring tool

NEW QUESTION 33
Which of the following is NOT an experience-based technique?

Boundary value analysis.

Error guessing

Exploratory testing

Fault attack

NEW QUESTION 34
A software module to be used in a mission critical application incorporates an algorithm for secure transmission of dat a.
Which review type is most appropriate to ensure high quality and technical correctness of the algorithm?

Walkthrough

Informal Review

Technical Review

Management Review

NEW QUESTION 35
A QA manager of a start-up company needs to implement within a week a low cost incident management tool. Which of the following is the best option?

Document incidents on a large board in the lab

Purchase and deploy an incident management tool

Manage the incidents through E-mails and phone calls

Manage the incidents in a spreadsheet posted on the intranet

NEW QUESTION 36
A software calculates the annual car tax using three inputs:
– E; the emission level of the vehicle
– P: the power of the vehicle
-T the type of the vehicle
The input value for P can be integer positive values between 15 and 350.
Which of the following answers contains a correct list of a boundary values for the P input?

14,351

14,15,350,351

15,350

5.175.500

NEW QUESTION 37
Which of the following is true about Oracles?

Sometimes old version of a product can be used as an Oracle

Oracles help in reproducing the irreproducible bugs

Oracles are derived from the design

Oracles can be generated automatically using data generators

NEW QUESTION 38
You need to test the login page of a web site. The page contains fields for user name and password. Which test design techniques are most appropriate for this case?

Decision table testing, state transition testing.

Equivalence partitioning, Boundary value analysis.

Exploratory testing, statement coverage.

Decision coverage, fault attack.

Equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis are test design techniques that are most appropriate for testing the login page of a web site. The page contains fields for user name and password, which are input values that can be divided into partitions of equivalent data. Equivalence partitioning is a technique that divides the input data and output results of a software component into partitions of equivalent data. Each partition should contain data that is treated in the same way by the component. Equivalence partitioning can be used to reduce the number of test cases by selecting one representative value from each partition. Boundary value analysis is a technique that tests boundary values between partitions of equivalent data. Boundary values are values at the edge of an equivalence partition or at the smallest incremental distance on either side of an edge. Boundary value analysis can be used to detect defects caused by incorrect handling of boundary conditions. For example, for testing the user name field, we can identify two equivalence partitions: valid user name (existing and correct) and invalid user name (non-existing or incorrect). The boundary values for these partitions are the minimum and maximum length of user name allowed by the system.
Decision table testing and state transition testing are not suitable for testing the login page of a web site, as they are more applicable for testing components that have multiple inputs and outputs that depend on logical combinations of conditions or events. Decision table testing is a technique that shows combinations of inputs and/or stimuli (causes) with their associated outputs and/or actions (effects). State transition testing is a technique that models how a system transitions from one state to another depending on events or conditions.
Exploratory testing and statement coverage are not suitable for testing the login page of a web site, as they are more applicable for testing components that require learning, creativity and intuition or structural analysis. Exploratory testing is an approach to testing that emphasizes learning, test design and test execution at the same time. Exploratory testing relies on the tester’s skills, creativity and intuition to explore the software under test and discover defects. Statement coverage is a type of structural testing that measures how many statements in a program have been executed by a test suite. Statement coverage can be used to assess the adequacy or completeness of a test suite.
Decision coverage and fault attack are not suitable for testing the login page of a web site, as they are more applicable for testing components that have complex logic or potential errors. Decision coverage is a type of structural testing that measures how many decision outcomes in a program have been executed by a test suite. Decision coverage can be used to assess the adequacy or completeness of a test suite. Fault attack is a type of functional testing that deliberately introduces faults into a system in order to provoke failures or errors. Verified Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus – Springer], Chapter 4, page 34-46; Chapter 5, page 47-48.

NEW QUESTION 39
Which of the following would be the LEAST likely to be used as the basis for a test exit criteria?

Test schedules

Cost of testing performed so far

Confidence of testers in tested code

Number of unfixed defects

NEW QUESTION 40
Which of the following are valid testing principles?
I) Exhaustive testing is in general impossible.
II) Exhaustive testing should be executed for code intended to be reused.
III) Testing may guarantee that a program is correct.
IV) Testing cannot guarantee that a program is correct.
V) Defects cluster together in certain areas of the product.

I, IV, V

II, Iv

I, V

I, Ill

NEW QUESTION 41
A bank software has a feature of locking down accounts that have and overdraft higher than $10,000.
Due to a bug in the code, the system locks down accounts once they reached $1000 overdraft.
Based on this context, which of the following is correct statement

It is an example of a defect that it goes undetected, will cause harm to the end customer and to the company (the bank)

It is an example of a defect, that if goes undetected, will cause harm to the end customer but not to the company (the bank)

It is an example of a defect that if goes undetected, will not cause harm to the end customer, but will cause harm to the company (the bank)

It is an example of a defect that if goes undetected, will not cause any real harm to either the end customer or to the company (the bank)

NEW QUESTION 42
Which ONE of the following statements about acceptance testing is NOT correct?

Testing of disaster recovery and backup/restore is usually NOT part of acceptance testing.

The customers or system users are often responsible for the acceptance testing.

The main goal of acceptance testing is to build confidence in the system, not find defects.

Acceptance testing is the last level of testing performed prior to system release.

NEW QUESTION 43
Which of the following is NOT an objective of testing?

Finding defects

Providing information for decision-making

Gaining confidence about the level of quality of the software

Analyzing and removing the cause of failures

NEW QUESTION 44
Which of the following can be considered a VALID exit criterion?
I Estimates of defect density or reliability measures.
II. The completion and publication of an exhaustive Test Report.
III. Accuracy measures, such as code, functionality or risk coverage.
IV Residual risks such as lack of code coverage in certain areas.

I, III, IV

I, II, III

III, IV

II, III, IV

NEW QUESTION 45
Which of the following statements regarding inspection is NOT true?

An inspection may be led by a trained moderator who shall not be the author.

The main purpose of an inspection is to find solutions to the problems.

An inspection can be performed by peers.

An inspection shall follow a formal process based on rules and checklists with entry and exit criteria

An inspection is a type of review that follows a defined process with formal entry and exit criteria and roles and responsibilities for participants. An inspection can be performed by peers with different roles, such as moderator, author, reviewer and scribe. The following statement about inspection is not true:
B) The main purpose of an inspection is to find solutions to the problems. This statement is not true, as the main purpose of an inspection is to find defects or issues in a work product, not to find solutions to the problems. Finding solutions to the problems is a debugging or problem-solving activity that is usually performed by the author or developer after receiving the inspection report. The following statements about inspection are true:
A) An inspection may be led by a trained moderator who shall not be the author. This statement is true, as an inspection requires a moderator role who leads the inspection process and ensures that it follows the rules and standards. The moderator should be trained in inspection techniques and should not be the author of the work product under inspection, in order to avoid bias or conflict of interest.
C) An inspection can be performed by peers. This statement is true, as an inspection involves peer review, which means that the work product under inspection is evaluated by people who have similar roles or expertise as the author, but who are not directly involved in creating or modifying the work product.
D) An inspection shall follow a formal process based on rules and checklists with entry and exit criteria. This statement is true, as an inspection follows a formal process that consists of six main steps: planning, kick-off meeting, individual preparation, review meeting, rework and follow-up. Each step has defined rules and checklists to guide the participants and ensure consistency and quality. Each step also has entry and exit criteria to ensure that the prerequisites and objectives are met before moving to the next step. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus – Springer, Chapter 3, page 28-29.

NEW QUESTION 46
A software system checks age in order to determine which welcome screen to display. Age groups are:
Group I: 0-12
Group II; 13-18
Group III: over 18
Which of the below represent boundary values?

(-1.0.12.13.18,19)

(-1.0,11.12.13,14,18.19)

(0.12.13.18.19)

(4.5.15.20)

NEW QUESTION 47
Manager responsibilities in formal review includes ad except one of the following:

Planning the review

Determines if the review objectives have been met

Decide on the execution of reviews

Allocate time for review

NEW QUESTION 48
The testers in company A were part of the development team. Due to an organizational change they moved to be part of the support team.
What are the advantages and the disadvantages of this change?

Advantage: More independence in deciding what and how to test,
Disadvantage: Isolation from me development team knowledge

Advantage: being closer to customer perspective,
Disadvantage less independence in perspectives

Advantage: pulled to support tasks and having less time for testing, Disadvantage less chances to move a tester to development

Advantage: increased chances to move a tester to development;Disadvantage: pulled to support tasks and having less time for testing

NEW QUESTION 49
Which of the following is a function of a dynamic analysis tool?

Provide support for traceability of tests, test results and incidents to source documents

Monitor the allocation, use and de-allocation of memory during run-time of a program

Execute programs step-by-step in order to reproduce failures and find corresponding defects

Provide support for release of baselines consisting of configuration items

NEW QUESTION 50
Consider the following testing levels:
1) Component Testing
2) Integration Testing
3) System Testing
4) Acceptance Testing
Which of the following statements is true?

Integration and system testing are applicable when V-model is used.
Component and acceptance testing are applicable when iterative development models are used.

All the testing levels are applicable to V-model for software development.
Only acceptance testing is applicable for iterative models.

Acceptance testing is applicable for all software development models.
Component and system testing are applicable only for the V-model.

All testing levels are applicable, independent of which software development life-cycle process (V-model. iterative, incremental) is used.

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