[2026] Pass CAMS Exam – Real Questions & Answers [Q366-Q384]

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[2026] Pass CAMS Exam – Real Questions & Answers [Q366-Q384]

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[2026] Pass CAMS Exam – Real Questions and Answers

CAMS Exam Questions Get Updated [2026] with Correct Answers

Career Path

After obtaining this specialist-level CAMS certification, individuals may go on to get more advanced CAMS designations by ACAMS, which are offered in three fields. Thus, they are the Advanced CAMS – Audit, Advanced CAMS – Financial Crimes Investigations, and Advanced CAMS – Risk Management.

The benefit in Obtaining the CAMS Exam Certification

ACAMS conducted a survey recently and the findings were pretty interesting on average, professionals who had their ACAMS made $25,000 more than their colleagues who did not have the CAMS certification!
Protecting their company from money laundering threats and minimize money crime risks
Meeting mandated AML training needs through preparation and study
Increasing their skilled worth through a higher understanding of financial crime detection and hindrance techniques
Proving their AML experience to examiners and regulators

QUESTION 366
Having a risk-based approach is central to a financial institution understanding the money laundering and terrorist financing risk to which they are exposed. The development of a money laundering and terrorist financing risk assessment is a key starting point.
Commonly used risk factors include. (Select Three.)

product risk.

credit risk.

geographic risk.

customer risk.

liquidity risk.

QUESTION 367
A sound AML compliance program requires a comprehensive governance framework that addresses key elements to ensure the integrity of the financial system.
Which element forms the starting point of an effective AML compliance program?

Ongoing monitoring

Risk assessment

Policies and procedures

Suspicious activity reporting

Customer due diligence

QUESTION 368
What are two aspects of the Wolfsberg Anti-Money Laundering (AML) Principles for Correspondent Banking? (Choose two.)

At least one person, aside from the person sponsoring the relationship, should approve the correspondent relationship.

Correspondent banking is an inherently high risk business and all correspondent bank relationships should be reviewed on an annual basis.

Factors such as politically exposed person involvement and downstream (nested) correspondents increase the risk inherent in a correspondent relationship.

An Institution may assign a low risk rating to a correspondent bank located in a jurisdiction deemed to have an adequate AML environment (e.g., Financial Action Task Force member country) without needing to consider other factors

QUESTION 369
the Financing of Terrorism (CFT)]
The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) is empowered to impose sanctions regimes against countries and terrorist organizations.
Which statements are true regarding sanctions imposed by the UNSC? (Select Two.)

Attempts to circumvent or evade sanctions imposed by the UNSC can constitute a criminal offense if designated under local laws and regulations

The UN can impose arms embargoes but cannot prohibit direct or indirect exports of other goods to specific countries

Member countries of the United Nations are expected to implement and enforce sanctions imposed by the UNSC

Direct breaches of sanctions imposed by the UNSC constitute a criminal offense in all member countries

QUESTION 370
AML training programs should extend beyond basic concepts to deliver targeted training by:

offering internal policies training, such as customer identification and verification procedures and policies.

offering general background and history training pertaining to money laundering controls.

offering periodic refresher training on AML bases (usually annually) for existing employees.

offering appropriate training tailored to the individual’s specific roles, such as alerts for investigators and suspicious activity report writers.

A . Offering internal policies training: This is crucial. Employees need to understand the specific procedures and policies related to customer identification and verification. These internal policies ensure consistency and compliance.
B . Offering general background and history training: While historical context is valuable, it’s not the primary focus. AML training should prioritize practical knowledge and current best practices.
C . Offering periodic refresher training: Absolutely! Regular refresher training keeps employees up-to-date with evolving AML regulations and reinforces their understanding.
D . Offering tailored training for specific roles: This is essential. Different roles require different expertise. For example, investigators need to recognize red flags, while report writers must understand how to create effective suspicious activity reports.
Comprehensive Detailed
Internal Policies Training: AML training should cover internal policies thoroughly. This includes customer identification and verification procedures, as well as other relevant policies specific to the organization. Employees need to understand how these policies translate into day-to-day practices.
General Background and History: While historical context can be interesting, it’s not the primary focus of AML training. Instead, the emphasis should be on practical knowledge, current best practices, and real-world scenarios.
Periodic Refresher Training: Regular refresher training is essential. AML regulations evolve, and employees need to stay informed. Annual or periodic refreshers reinforce knowledge and ensure compliance.
Tailored Training for Specific Roles: Different roles within an organization have distinct responsibilities related to AML. Tailored training ensures that employees understand their specific duties. For example, investigators need to recognize suspicious patterns, while report writers must know how to create effective reports.
Reference:
Anti-Money Laundering Specialist (the 6th edition) resources.
ACAMS Certification Candidate Handbook
ACFCS AML 360 Certificate Program

QUESTION 371
The manager of a bank’s KYC team discovers that a high-risk customer’s activity was not reviewed last quarter as required by the bank’s internal compliance schedule.
What should the KYC team manager do?

Submit a referral to file a Suspicious Activity Report (SAR).

Remove the customer from the bank’s high-risk list.

Contact the customer’s relationship manager to suspend account access until the periodic KYC review is completed.

Evaluate the KYC review process to understand why the review did not occur as required and take corrective action as necessary.

QUESTION 372
The regulators of a US financial institution find that the institution has failed to establish and maintain a reasonably designed AML program. Which regulatory actions should be taken? (Select Two.)

Criminal penalties

Deferred prosecution agreement

Obtain additional license

Cease and desist order

Matter requiring attention

QUESTION 373
Which red flag indicates high potential for money laundering in a real estate purchase?

The purchaser is a nominee

The purchaser had a previous bankruptcy

The purchaser owns a cash intensive business

The purchaser is not a resident where the property is located

QUESTION 374
An institution has made the decision to exit a client relationship due to anti-money laundering concerns. Prior to starting the close out process, the institution receives a written request from a law enforcement agency to keep the account open. The client is the subject of an ongoing investigation and law enforcement wants the institution to continue to monitor the account and report any suspicious activity.
What is primary consideration the institution should keep in mind when deciding whether to agree to this request?

The anticipated cost of complying with the law enforcement request

The number of suspicious transaction reports previously filed on the client

The fact that the institution has a solid record in complying with law enforcement requests

Whether the institution can continue to meet its regulatory obligations with the accounts open

QUESTION 375
According to the Financial Action Task Force 40 Recommendations, to fulfill identification requirements concerning legal entities, financial institutions should take measures to verify

the financial status of the legal entity through documented proof of the entity’s other banking relations.

a person purporting to act on behalf of the legal entity who is a resident in a country with strict secrecy laws.

the legal existence and ownership structure of the legal entity.

funds or trusts maintained by terrorists.

QUESTION 376
A bank receives an anonymous tip from an employee about another employee through its confidential hotline.
Which activity warrants further review?

A mortgage officer works with home loan applicants to resolve adverse credit issues

An employee in bookkeeping accepts funds transfer requests from customers via telephone

An employee in accounting works with customers to help understand how to reduce service charges

A teller distributes bank brochures to customers who regularly conduct cash transactions below reporting limits

QUESTION 377
What is the appropriate compliance control for identifying politically exposed persons (PEPs) according to the Basel Committee’s paper on Customer Due Diligence for Banks?

Determining that a local figure is a PEP

Reviewing when a relationship is established

Reviewing relationships at account opening and on a periodic basis

Requiring that the customer discloses that they are a PEP or an associate of a PEP

QUESTION 378
Which three should real estate agents include in the criteria to assess their company’s potential money laundering and terrorist financing risks when implementing a reasonable risk-based approach?

Credit Risk

Customer Risk

Transaction Risk

Geographic Risk

QUESTION 379
A high volume of incoming wire transfers generates an alert about a client. The funds are immediately debited by cash withdrawals and outgoing wire transfers. Which information should be reviewed first to investigate this alert/case?

Customer profile

Adverse media search

Account activity

Open source information

QUESTION 380
Combating the Financing of Terrorism (CFT)]
Which of the following is considered a shell bank as defined by the USA PATRIOT Act?

A bank incorporated in an offshore jurisdiction without a physical presence or employees.

An Internet bank operating in the U.S. providing services worldwide.

A local bank with offices in a non-cooperative jurisdiction which is subject to minimal regulatory supervision.

A bank run by a foreign holding company with offices and staff in an offshore jurisdic-tion.

QUESTION 381
Which Trust parties should be identified to determine the true nature of the Trust relationship according to Basel guidelines? (Choose three.)

Respondents

Payees

Trust Administrators

Trustees

Beneficiaries

Settlors/grantors

According to the Basel guidelines on customer due diligence for banks, a trust is a legal arrangement whereby a person (the settlor or grantor) transfers the legal ownership of specific assets to another person or entity (the trustee) to hold for the benefit of a third person or persons (the beneficiaries)1. The Basel guidelines recommend that banks should identify and verify the identity of the following parties to determine the true nature of the trust relationship:
The trustee, who is the person or entity that has the legal authority and duty to manage the trust assets and distribute them to the beneficiaries according to the trust deed2. The trustee may also be the settlor, the beneficiary, or both, depending on the type and structure of the trust3.
The beneficiaries, who are the persons or entities that have a beneficial interest in the trust assets or income, either presently or in the future4. The beneficiaries may be named individuals, classes of persons, or charitable causes.
The settlor or grantor, who is the person or entity that creates the trust and transfers the legal ownership of the assets to the trustee. The settlor or grantor may also retain some rights or powers over the trust, such as the ability to appoint or remove trustees, beneficiaries, or protectors.
The other three options are incorrect because:
Respondents are not trust parties, but rather financial institutions that maintain correspondent banking relationships with other financial institutions. Respondents are not relevant for the identification of the trust relationship, but rather for the due diligence of the correspondent banking relationship.
Payees are not trust parties, but rather persons or entities that receive payments from the trust or other sources.
Payees are not relevant for the identification of the trust relationship, but rather for the monitoring of the transactions and activities of the trust.
Trust administrators are not trust parties, but rather persons or entities that provide administrative services to the trust, such as accounting, record-keeping, or tax compliance. Trust administrators are not relevant for the identification of the trust relationship, but rather for the assessment of the risk and complexity of the trust.
1: Basel Committee on Banking Supervision, Customer due diligence for banks, October 2001, 4, p. 17 2:
Basel Committee on Banking Supervision, Customer due diligence for banks, October 2001, 4, p. 17 3:
ACAMS, CAMS Study Guide, 6th Edition, Chapter 5,p. 111 4: Basel Committee on Banking Supervision, Customer due diligence for banks, October 2001, 4, p. 17 : ACAMS, CAMS Study Guide, 6th Edition, Chapter 5, p. 111 : Basel Committee on Banking Supervision, Customer due diligence for banks, October
2001, 4, p. 17 : ACAMS, CAMS Study Guide, 6th Edition, Chapter 5, p. 111 : Basel Committee on Banking Supervision, Customer due diligence for banks, October 2001, 4, p. 10 : ACAMS, CAMS Study Guide, 6th Edition, Chapter 5, p. 112 : ACAMS, CAMS Study Guide, 6th Edition, Chapter 5, p. 112

QUESTION 382
Combating the Financing of Terrorism (CFT)]
Which key factor would result in the decision for a financial institution (FI) to exit a client relationship?

After assessing all risk factors the level of residual client risk exceeds the FI’s risk appetite.

The client is a registered charity known to remit funds to high risk geographies where there is limited due diligence information available.

Closing the client accounts will help reduce the number of transaction monitoring alerts.

Client transactions generate ongoing transaction monitoring alerts that did not result in any SAR/STR filings.

The key factor that would result in the decision for a financial institution (FI) to exit a client relationship is when the level of residual client risk exceeds the FI’s risk appetite. Residual client risk is the remaining risk after applying the FI’s risk mitigation measures, such as customer due diligence, transaction monitoring, and suspicious activity reporting. Risk appetite is the level and type of risk that the FI is willing and able to accept inpursuit of its business objectives. If the residual client risk is higher than the risk appetite, the FI may decide to terminate the relationship to avoid potential regulatory, reputational, or operational consequences.
The other options are not necessarily key factors for exiting a client relationship, because:
* The client is a registered charity known to remit funds to high risk geographies where there is limited due diligence information available. This option may indicate a higher level of inherent client risk, but it does not necessarily mean that the FI should exit the relationship. The FI may be able to apply enhanced due diligence, ongoing monitoring, and risk-based controls to mitigate the risk and comply with the regulatory requirements. The FI may also consider the nature and purpose of the client’s activities, the source and destination of the funds, and the potential impact on the client’s beneficiaries.
* Closing the client accounts will help reduce the number of transaction monitoring alerts. This option may suggest a possible benefit of exiting the relationship, but it is not a key factor for making the decision. The FI should not base its decision solely on the volume of transaction monitoring alerts, but rather on the quality and relevance of the alerts, the results of the investigation, and the risk assessment of the client. The FI should also ensure that its transaction monitoring system is properly calibrated and validated to avoid generating excessive or false alerts.
* Client transactions generate ongoing transaction monitoring alerts that did not result in any SAR/STR filings. This option may indicate a need for reviewing and improving the transaction monitoring system or the investigation process, but it does not necessarily imply that the FI should exit the relationship.
The FI should not assume that the absence of SAR/STR filings means that the client is low risk or that the alerts are irrelevant. The FI should conduct a thorough and timely investigation of the alerts and document the rationale for filing or not filing a SAR/STR. The FI should also consider the overall risk profile of the client and the nature and frequency of the transactions.
:
ACAMS Study Guide for the CAMS Certification Examination – 6th Edition, Chapter 3: AML Programs, Section 3.2: AML Program Components, Subsection 3.2.2: Risk Assessment, pp. 77-79 FFIEC BSA/AML Examination Manual, Section: Assessing Compliance with BSA Regulatory Requirements, Subsection: Suspicious Activity Reporting, pp. 4-5 Answers to Frequently Asked Questions Regarding Suspicious Activity Reporting and Other Anti-Money Laundering Considerations, Question 2, pp. 2-3

QUESTION 383
An offshore company is owned by four equal partners that reside in separate jurisdictions. One partner presents an authenticated power of attorney apparentlyexecuted by the remaining three partners in his favor and requests that a bank account be opened on behalf of all partners. He needs this done quickly because there is a large deposit pending. The account-opening officer contacts the bank’s anti-money laundering officer for advice. Which of the following should the anti-money laundering officer advise as an initial step?

Verify the identity of all the partners.

Verify the source of the deposit.

File a suspicious transaction report with the appropriate Financial Intelligence Unit.

File a suspicious transaction report with the Egmont Group.

QUESTION 384
A compliance officer is conducting a review of the automated transaction monitoring system. What would be most likely to result in a change in the monitoring system parameters?

The local paper runs stories that sully the institution’s reputation in the marketplace

Law enforcement issues a subpoena for a particular customer’s account records

The national Financial intelligence Unit issues new risk indicators

The institution’s creditworthiness thresholds change

An automated transaction monitoring system is a tool that analyzes transactions and customer behavior for signs of money laundering or other financial crimes, and generates alerts when suspicious or unusual activity is detected. The system relies on a set of rules and parameters that define what constitutes normal and abnormal transactions, based on the risk profile and business nature of the financial institution or business.
These rules and parameters need to be periodically reviewed and updated to ensure that they are effective and compliant with the latest regulations and best practices.
One of the factors that would most likely result in a change in the monitoring system parameters is when the national Financial intelligence Unit (FIU) issues new risk indicators. The FIU is a central authority that collects, analyzes, and disseminates financial intelligence related to money laundering, terrorist financing, and other financial crimes. The FIU also provides guidance and feedback to financial institutions and businesses on how to comply with their anti-money laundering (AML) obligations and improve their transaction monitoring systems. The FIU may issue new risk indicators based on its analysis of emerging trends, typologies, and threats in the financial sector, or based on international standards and recommendations.
These risk indicators are intended to help financial institutions and businesses identify and report suspicious transactions more effectively and efficiently.
Therefore, when the FIU issues new risk indicators, the financial institution or business should review its existing monitoring system parameters and adjust them accordingly to reflect the new risks and scenarios. For example, the FIU may issue new risk indicators related to the use of cryptocurrencies, virtual assets, or online platforms for money laundering or terrorist financing. In that case, the financial institution or business should update its monitoring system parameters to include new rules, thresholds, or patterns that capture these activities and generate alerts for further investigation.
1: The Complete Guide to Transaction Monitoring: Everything to Know
2: AML Scenarios: Transaction Monitoring Challenges
3: Setting AML Transaction Monitoring Thresholds
4: Automated Transaction Monitoring – Considerations for System Implementation
5: ACAMS (2020). CAMS Certification Package (6th Edition)

ACAMS CAMS (Certified Anti-Money Laundering Specialists) Exam is a globally recognized certification that demonstrates a professional’s knowledge and expertise in the field of anti-money laundering (AML) and financial crime prevention. CAMS exam is designed to assess the candidate’s understanding of AML regulations, compliance procedures, and risk management strategies.

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[2026] Pass CAMS Exam – Real Questions & Answers [Q366-Q384]

Career Path

The benefit in Obtaining the CAMS Exam Certification

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